Re: orion DOES EPIPHANIUS KNOW WHAT PHARES MEANS?

[RGmyrken@aol.com]

   Epiphanius appears not to have known Hebrew/Aramaic (cf. his mangling of a
translation at Panarion 19.4.3-6).  So little reliance can be placed on the
exact form "phares" (which is in any case a transcription into Greek).  But
Epiphanius does show that one current explanation of the name Pharisee is that
it came from a similar Hebrew word meaning "separation."  Whether that was the
correct origin of the name or not is a different matter.  

   Russell Gmirkin

> Okay, I'll bite.  Is Epiphanius "correct" when he says "PHARES" means
>  separation?
>  It doesn't sound like what OTHER posters have been saying.
>  
>  What WOULD "phares" mean in Hebrew (or Aramaic)?
>  
>  George Brooks
>  George.X.Brooks@JUNO.com
>  
For private reply, e-mail to RGmyrken@aol.com
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