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orion Re: PHARISEES = SEPARATISTS



A post recently quoted the following:

" If Pharisees were "specifiers,"
>what they specified (halakha), is, as it were, unspecified, at least
>explictly--understood. Same for Pharisees as "separatists"--separate 
>from something, surely."

Are there still those who hold to the interpretation of the term Pharisee
as
referring to Separated Ones?

I thought it was becoming more accepted that the term Pharisee comes from
Babylonian Jews, zealous for the law, who were referred to generically as
Persians - - or in other words, Parsees.  The term is identical to the
one put on
another group of immigrants coming from Persia - - those Zoroastrians
fleeing
to India.

Since we know that the language of Persia is referred to as Farsi
(Parsi), it
seemed clear to me that Pharisee is much more closely related to a
Persian
origin than the rather awkward, and almost implausible, Separated Ones
translation.

Comments?

George Brooks
George.X.Brooks@JUNO.com

For private reply, e-mail to george.x.brooks@juno.com (George Brooks)
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