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Re: orion Knowlege of DSS outside Qumran in 1st cent CE??
kdlitwak wrote:
> My use of "Palestine" may techincally be anachronistic, but as I
> understand it, "Judah" did not encompass Galilee and other areas
> bordering on "Judah". Therefore, if I wish to speak of the general
> area
> of which Judah is a part but not the whole, what 1st century CE term
> is
> preferrable? I'll happily use that. This may be significant because
> it
> seems as though Yirmiyahu Ben-David is perhaps suggesting that outside
>
> of Yehudah there would be less knowledge of Qumran teachings, etc.
> That's also I guess part of my original query. I'm trying to figure
> out
> just whee one would hae to live and what one would have to do for a
> profession in order to have been acquainted enough with QUmran texts
> and
> teachings to relfect them in his/her own writings. Thanks.
>
I have walked this same tightrope a number of times in the usage of
the term "ancient Palestine." We seem to have no problem with the
"ancient Americas" or "Ancient Egypt." I think it is more a matter of
"political correctness" than technical correctness.
Jack Kilmon
jpman@accesscomm.net